Thursday, June 9, 2022

About face

 Let's talk about hypocrisy. Let's talk "double-standards" and let's talk about my favorite weasel response, "it's different."

And before I get started, I'm sure that my opinions are unpopular. That's how I know that they are right.

If you are a long time reader, you know that I put little faith in Hollywood and celebrity. The concepts make no sense to me. But I do respect actor as professionals, doing a job. So finding the right actor to do a particular job can't be easy and I understand that part of the job of an actor is to pretend. Great so far, right?

But what about when that pretending is aided by a good make-up department? Do I think that all the responsibility for becoming a character rests on the actor's shoulders? Is that fair? Would Chevy Chase's President Ford imitation be better served if he had donned a wig or fake glasses?

I read an article recently about Bradley Cooper. I like him as an actor and enjoy some of the roles he has played. He is filming a biopic of Leonard Bernstein, the composer who wrote such jingles as the songs in West Side Story and "I Hate Music: A cycle of Five Kid Songs for Soprano and Piano." To play the role, it has been reported that he has had an enlarged nose stuck on his face. This has brought up some questions. So let me break down the line of argument.

There are two kinds of characters which actors play, real people and fictional people. Mostly, the "real people" are interpretations of reality and the resulting portrayal is of a person based in someone's memory of reality but at least the person existed. Fictional people did not. If an actor wants to put on a nose in order to look like a particular real people, the argument goes, that makes sense. If he puts on a nose to look like a made up person, that might be wrong because, why does he need the nose. Bernstein was Jewish but he existed, so the nose is to portray Bernstein. But a fictional Jew needs no extra nose because that would be putting on Jewface, linked to a long tradition of using the stereotype of a larger nose to act as shorthand in presenting someone as recognizably Jewish. You can look online -- the stereotype is very, very old (mid 13th century, apparently).

Except for the hypocrisy.

1. Rostand created the character of Cyrano De Bergerac. Yes, he was inspired by a real swordsman but that person, at least according to Wikipedia, did not have a romance with Roxanne nor did he have an enlarged nose. To play Rostand's character is to play an imagined being so adding a nose should be wrong. But everyone does it (or uses some other shorthand for physical aberration, as casting Peter Dinklage in the role).

2. Cooper played Joseph Merrick, the "Elephant Man" in 2015. He did so without prosthetics. He would have been more recognizable as a misformed person had he, but he chose not to. So to play someone who existed, he decided NOT to add anything. So it isn't necessary to add on things in order to portray an historical figure.

So, so far we have a general rule that playing a person is different from playing a non-person. OK, what about the question of "must someone from a group play a member of that group?" That brings up the whole "must a Jew play a Jew" and the answer is "of course not".

But.

When playing a Jew, any actor must decide what in his performance must say "Jew." Is it the dialogue? The accent? The appearance? If it is any of these, and the actor is not playing a particular Jew upon whom to model, the actor is opting for something that is externally recognizable shorthand for "Jew." That thing requires looking into the author's vision of (and opinion of) Jewry and the audience's familiarity with tropes and cues to decipher a role as "Jew." So throw on the prayer shawl even if not in prayer? Have the role include some greedy actions or ethical blindness? Or play the righteous morality card and have the Jew be the ethical center. Either way, play the extreme to convince the masses because if you play a Jew as most Jews really are, the portrayal would be absent anything that makes the Jew any different from anyone else. You see, Jews are a sizable group with a range of physical and behavioral traits.

Where are we now with the argument? Ah, yes, playing a Jew requires that one adopt some sort of visible hint or marker of Jewish identity. But playing Bernstein isn't playing a Jew because there is no attempt to use that visible sign as a religious affiliation, just as a reference to the person. 

Except for the hypocrisy.

So here it comes -- the question of "blackface." Look, I know that there is a long history (though minstrel shows don't date back to the 13th century as far as I know. Wikipedia has the practice of wearing makeup to portray someone with darker skin as dating to the mid 15th century) and is associated with racist iconography. But so does the "Jewish nose"! Why would there be any problem with a white actor putting on blackface to portray a black character not because he is ridiculing the racial identity but because he is presenting the author's understanding of the character? Shakespeare invented the Jew Shylock, He invented the Moor Othello. Same author. Why is it OK to have a white, non-Jewish actor adopt Shakespeare's "look" of a Jew for one, but not the "look of a Moor" for another? Is either doing so in order to tap into a history of bias and racism? And, historically, both have been done, to varying levels of public censure or applause.

Everyone loves to say "but it's different." Except that once you break it down, it isn't. If an actor can assume anything external in order to be identified as a character, living or fictional, but without the intent to tie into any negative history of that practice, then it should be OK for all. And if it isn't, then it shouldn't be. Simple as that.

I'm not advocating blackface. I'm advocating consistency in applying rules and expectations and I am criticizing the case-by-case judgments that people make because they want to assuage the sensibilities of one group but not of another. If Cooper needs a nose to be convincing as Bernstein, but nothing to convince as Merrick, then there is something wrong. If Cooper can put on a nose to play Bernstein, and Richard Mulligan can stick a beard on to be Lincoln (great movie by the way) then I won't look at anyone putting on blackface and ask "where do we draw the line" -- instead I ask "why do we draw a line?" If an actor is tasked, as a professional, with the responsibility of playing a black person who actually existed, why wouldn't the application of cosmetics to darken the skin be as desirable as amore accurate, enlarged nose for a Jew from history? I have yet to find anyone who can give me an answer which accounts for actual history and which cannot be subverted by the many exceptions which are right under our...well, you know.

Tuesday, June 7, 2022

The Gold-Dan rule

 While I put off grading tests, I figure I will set down an idea that developed over this past Sabbath/Shavu'ot holiday. Now, in the spirit of a good play, I begin with an apology.

Sorry.

I might be completely wrong with this one -- it relies upon a particular knowledge of biblical Hebrew which I don't have, won't get and don't have. So if you want to poke holes in my thesis, feel free. I won't be any more offended than I already am.

There is, according to some (and I have done a lot of reading on this...the best I can surmise is that everyone argues with everyone else about this) a peculiar feature of biblical Hebrew. The prefix indicating a conjunction ("and") is indicated by the letter vav (or "waw" for some traditionalists). Put it in front of another word, and voila, you have "and" in front of that other word. So far, so far, or so they say.

But that vav prefix has, in certain situations, another power. According to those some, it changes the tense of the verb that follows it. So when the text reads literally "and I prayed" it means "and I will pray" (though I have heard those who say that sometimes the "and" disappears when we read the vav as changing tense.) I'm ok with this. It presents a lot of problems and questions and there is a lot of subtlety in terms of the vowels and the stresses on the words, but the bottom line is that sometimes, according to some people, some words change their tense. But that change (to my young and innocent senses) should just be a simple flip, past to future or future to past. And yet, in at least one very important situation, people assume that other stuff happens.

There is a central idea in Judaism, and in fact, it is central, in one form or another, in many religions: the "golden rule." One source for it is from the verse in Leviticus (19:18) which reads (courtesy of Sefaria)

(יח) לֹֽא־תִקֹּ֤ם וְלֹֽא־תִטֹּר֙ אֶת־בְּנֵ֣י עַמֶּ֔ךָ וְאָֽהַבְתָּ֥ לְרֵעֲךָ֖ כָּמ֑וֹךָ אֲנִ֖י יקוק

(18) You shall not take vengeance or bear a grudge against your countrymen. Love your fellow as yourself: I am the LORD.

The phrase that pays is וְאָֽהַבְתָּ֥ לְרֵעֲךָ֖ כָּמ֑וֹךָ which is translated here as Love your fellow as yourself. There are a lot of translations out there (https://www.biblestudytools.com/leviticus/19-18-compare.html) but they all seem to do the same thing: they change the tense and also switch the form into a command. A command! The tzivui form (the imperative) makes a demand on the person. So the Hebrew word "and you loved" becomes "you SHALL love". But why? Why would the form change along with the time-tense?

I would like to suggest that it doesn't. Yes, I know that the Rambam counts this as a commandment so it should be thought of as a commandment. I can't argue with the Rambam. But still, no. The way I see it, if the Torah wants to tell us to do something, it has a perfectly good imperative form to work with (cf the commandment "Honor your father and your mother" which uses the tzivui verb in the Hebrew "Kaved"). So why here, where people love to see it as a commandment, is there no choice to use an imperative form of "love" (like aheiv or something)? I know that some commentators struggle with the idea that one can be commanded to love. Love is a feeling, a sense, and not something you can turn on or off, or which cleanly translates to discrete actions.

Maybe it is because the verb/verse is speaking of inevitability. If you follow the other rules then the natural conclusion will be a purer understanding and love of others. The first part of that verse is a clear commandment -- DO NOT take revenge and DO NOT hold a grudge. So what happens when we follow and obey those laws? The natural consequence of appreciating each other and loving others as we love ourselves. A new reality of seeing ourselves in others and others in us. But we don't need to be commanded to do this because it is the most logical conclusion which will inevitably come to pass if we follow those things which we are, explicitly, commanded about.

Maybe we shouldn't be trying to force love, but instead, try to be more conscious about the actual things that we can control and the love will happen organically afterwards.